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Question for Texans...
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<blockquote data-quote="lavacarancher" data-source="post: 1265576" data-attributes="member: 9198"><p>TB is correct. In some cases the surface land owner also owns the sub-surface (mineral rights). Mineral rights could include rights to oil, natural gas, coal, sulfur and even sand or rocks. The mineral rights owner has a right to the minerals under his surface acreage and COULD produce them if his pockets are deep enough. But as TB said, typically, the surface owner will get a percentage of the resource for allowing a producer to develop the mineral. Sometimes, however, the surface owner has pi$$ed away his mineral rights to someone else. In that case he has no rights to the minerals under his property and may be compensated only for damage to his surface property.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="lavacarancher, post: 1265576, member: 9198"] TB is correct. In some cases the surface land owner also owns the sub-surface (mineral rights). Mineral rights could include rights to oil, natural gas, coal, sulfur and even sand or rocks. The mineral rights owner has a right to the minerals under his surface acreage and COULD produce them if his pockets are deep enough. But as TB said, typically, the surface owner will get a percentage of the resource for allowing a producer to develop the mineral. Sometimes, however, the surface owner has pi$$ed away his mineral rights to someone else. In that case he has no rights to the minerals under his property and may be compensated only for damage to his surface property. [/QUOTE]
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